2.24 - Gospel Apocalyptics
April 18, 2005 | Comments: 2Biblical Hermeneutics Part Second Chapter 24
Here Terry turns from the apocalyptic writings of the Old Testament to the discourses of our Lord Himself recorded in the synoptic gospels: Matthew 24-25, Mark 13 and Luke 21. Though the author does not use the terms “postmillennialism” or “preterism” per se, the bulk of this chapter is taken up with refuting the various chiliastic interpretations of these eschatological passages, and demonstrating the overall soundness and internal consistency the preterist position.
The author does this in his characteristically objective fashion, bringing no dogmatic assumptions or prejudicial concepts to the texts, but steadfastly applying the principles of sound hermeneutics, paying close heed to the context, scope and plan of the passages. Among many points discussed, the following observations are made which lend support to the view. First, the Greek term, ???? ? ?? in Matthew 24.3, absent in the two parallel texts, has often been incorrectly translated and/or understood to mean the “end of the world” when it actually means the “end of this age or epoch.” Within the context of Jesus’ statements regarding the destruction of the Temple, it most natural to understand this as the end of the Jewish dispensation, to which our Lord often alluded elsewhere. The explicitly stated time-limitations of these prophecies (Matthew 24.34, Mark 13.30, Luke 21.32) cannot be cast aside without jettisoning sound hermeneutics as well. As far as the gospel being preached in all the world (?????), in Matthew 24.14, Luke 2.1 states that a census was taken of “all the world” and Paul states in Colossians 1.6,23 that the gospel was bearing fruit “in all the world.”
The author adduces other convincing arguments, as well as showing the formal connection of the gospel apocalyptics with the Jewish genre of prophetic literature found in books like Joel and Ezekiel. The basic structure is the same, and much of the language and imagery of these gospel passages is taken directly from Old Testament apocalyptics, e.g. Joel 2.10,31, Ezekiel 32.7, Daniel 7.13 and Isaiah 13.10. Following a literalist methodology renders any rational exposition of passages like these impossible. A consistent and coherent view of Scripture requires that we accept that concepts like the Son of Man coming on the clouds of Heaven mean the same thing when first written by the Old Testament prophet, as they did later when spoken by Jesus.
Comments
agreed. nathan.
Nathan on May 11, 2005 at 11:56 AM
As regards Terry’s comments concerning ???? ? ?? “end of the age” we would be remiss if we did consider the other Matthean uses of this term: Matthew 13.36-50 (2 times) and Matthew 28.19-20
It is certainly possible that the same author may use the same phrase in the same work in different connotative ways (witness Paul and ? in Romans). Is there warrant for considering that Matthew is doing so in his gospel? If not, should we understand all the uses as the end of Jewish epoch? Will our Lord then be with us always, but only until A.D. 70?
I would welcome any insights or light you may have to offer.
Andrew on May 29, 2005 at 06:07 PM
